Let f∈C1[a,b]f \in C^1[a,b]f∈C1[a,b], f(a)=0f(a) = 0f(a)=0 and suppose that λ∈R\lambda \in \mathbb{R}λ∈R, λ>0\lambda > 0λ>0, is such that
for all x∈[a,b]x \in [a,b]x∈[a,b]. Is it true that f(x)=0f(x) = 0f(x)=0 for all x∈[a,b]x \in [a,b]x∈[a,b]?
Hidden so you can work on the problem first.