IMC 1998 · Problem 6

Day 220 points5th IMC · Blagoevgrad, Bulgaria

Statement

Let f:(0,1)[0,)f : (0,1) \to [0,\infty) be a function that is zero except at the distinct points a1,a2,a_1, a_2, \dots. Let bn=f(an)b_n = f(a_n).

(a) Prove that if n=1bn<\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n < \infty, then ff is differentiable at at least one point x(0,1)x \in (0,1).

(b) Prove that for any sequence of non-negative real numbers (bn)n=1(b_n)_{n=1}^{\infty}, with n=1bn=\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n = \infty, there exists a sequence (an)n=1(a_n)_{n=1}^{\infty} such that the function ff defined as above is nowhere differentiable.

Official solution

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