IMC 2002 · Problem 2

Day 19th IMC · Warsaw, Poland

Statement

Does there exist a continuously differentiable function f:R→Rf : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} such that for every x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R} we have f(x)>0f(x) > 0 and f′(x)=f(f(x))f'(x) = f(f(x))?

Official solution

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