IMC 2002 · Problem 3

Day 19th IMC · Warsaw, Poland

Statement

Let nn be a positive integer and let

ak=1(nk),bk=2kn,fork=1,2,,n.a_k = \frac{1}{\binom{n}{k}}, \quad b_k = 2^{k-n}, \quad \textit{for} \quad k = 1, 2, \dots, n.

Show that

a1b11+a2b22++anbnn=0.(1)\frac{a_1 - b_1}{1} + \frac{a_2 - b_2}{2} + \dots + \frac{a_n - b_n}{n} = 0. \tag{1}

Official solution

Hidden so you can work on the problem first.